An everlasting universal defeater for right-libertarianism
How to usher in a realistic utopia: realizing Rawls's notion of a property-owning democracy
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Here is a sketch of two arguments for why there is anything (concrete) rather than nothing (concrete), which are based on, or at least inspired by, ideas found in Spinoza's Ethics and Leibniz's "On the Ultimate Origination of Things":
Spinozistic Argument: Essences are ideas. Judgements are part of the essence of ideas. Judgements assert the truth of coherent ideas, and assert the falsity of incoherent ideas. Ideas/essences are therefore active and powerful--they have the power to do things/make their referents obtain or fail to obtain. Therefore, if there is no inconsistency in the essence of an idea, its corresponding judgement will affirm its truth, and thereby bring it about/make the idea concrete. Therefore, all possible essences become concrete on their own. Therefore, the reason why there is anything concrete rather than nothing concrete is that at least some abstract essences/ideas are internally coherent, and these intrinsically actualize themselves/make themselves concrete.
Leibnizian Argument: Unactualized possibilities have a natural, innate tendency or striving to actualize themselves unless they are impeded by something external to them. Therefore, the reason why there is anything concrete rather than nothing is that some unactualized possibilities were not impeded in their innate, natural tendency to actualize themselves by things external to them.
I note that both arguments provide a rationale for Negative PSR, the latter of which we've discussed on other occassions. If Negative PSR is true, then the default presumption is that mere possibilia will become actual unless there exists some countervailing element that prevents them from actualizing, in which case the epistemic force of the "why is there some (concrete) rather than nothing?" question is undercut.
(From an old Facebook post of mine back in 2018)
Assume Platonism about properties, propositions, and possible worlds. Such is the natural backdrop of the modal ontological argument. Assume further that the key possibility premise of the modal ontological argument is true, viz., that there is a possible world at which maximal excellence is exemplified. Then by Axiom S5 and that premise, we get the God of classical theism -- or do we? Seems to me we don't. For the picture is that God is ontologically posterior to and dependent upon the existence and ontological structure of the platonic multiverse -- God's existence is the ontological consequence of the nature and structure of platonic space. But if that's right, then God is, in a real sense, a dependent being, in which case classical theism is false.
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An everlasting universal defeater for right-libertarianism How to usher in a realistic utopia: realizing Rawls's notion of a property...